Bible dating before divorce
They felt ashamed and humiliated before the world even though at the moment no one else existed. In Gen. God Himself recognized their need for covering their nakedness and clothed them.
Marriage was for a man and woman to come together in a lifetime relationship where they would experience physical union exclusively with each other. The apostles condemned “sexual immorality." "Sexual immorality" in the N. refers to "sexual" intimacy outside of marriage (God's original purpose for it). In ancient times and even today these three areas on a woman’s body and two areas on a man’s body are obvious.
They fulfilled what God ordained in Gen.1 and 2 and enjoyed sexual union and had a son. However, after the fall, the pure innocence and lack of humiliation that was felt even between Adam and Eve would never be the same. 5: 2 says that God desires that Christian men treat Christian women as sisters in absolute purity.
God's plan for romantic and sexual intimacy was corrupted by man. How does God define romantic/emotional/physical intimacy that is for marriage only?
God’s purpose for giving man and woman the ability to experience romantic and physical intimacy with each other was for marriage. It was to be experienced between a husband and wife in a monogamous relationship.
It was given by God to Adam and Eve as husband and wife.
Gen. "They shall become one flesh" refers not only to the physical union of two bodies, but the emotional intimacy that is part of that union as well. (Eph.-33) This was and has always been God's plan for romantic/emotional and sexual intimacy.